A farm on a lake is subdivided into waterfront and back lots.  A private road is created by the family to access the lots and they retain ownership of the road.  The deed to the lots also state the owner is granted a "right to travel" the privately owned road. Years go by and a road association now owns the road.  The last lot, a back lot with just a smidge of a property line is sold with an address on another road. The deed did not convey a right to travel the road from the family.  Can you just presume the right?  If your association has a similar scenario, I would be interested in knowing if it is common or necessary to have "right to travel" across your private road in your deed.  We are a non profit and our by-laws state if you have an improved lot that abuts the road you are a member and maybe that in and of itself grants a right to travel?  If there were no road association, there would be no right?  Thank you for your time in weighing in.