I am preparing draft bylaws for an anticipated first meeting we hope to notice soon.  I've seen some comments in this forum suggesting that Association bylaws include a 2/3 affirmative vote requirement for Owners to amend the bylaws, rather than a simple majority. I am wondering if others share that view. 

The statute requires only a simply majority to repeal the Association altogether, so seems superfluous to require a 2/3 vote to amend bylaws.  If only a simple majority (but not a super majority) approved of the proposed amendment(s), they could still theoretically repeal and reconstitute the Association with the amended bylaws, no?  Thus, seems like a counterproductive requirement, but maybe I am missing something.  Thank you!